We see that if we set $$ C_{ij}^{ab} =\frac{1}{4}\frac{\langle ab \vert \hat{v} \vert ij \rangle}{\epsilon_i+\epsilon_j-\epsilon_a-\epsilon_b}, $$ we have a perfect agreement between FCI and MBPT. However, FCI includes such \( 2p-2h \) correlations to infinite order. In order to make a meaningful comparison we would at least need to sum such correlations to infinite order in perturbation theory.